There's a question I've wanted to ask for a long time. Does an act that objectively does not infringe on legal interests constitute a crime? Subjective and objective are not unified! For example, mist

There's a question I've wanted to ask for a long time. Does an act that objectively does not infringe on legal interests constitute a crime? Subjective and objective are not unified! For example, mistaking sugar for arsenic to kill people. The example you gave is attempted crime. Although there is no objective fact of killing people, criminal acts exist both subjectively and behaviorally. Mistaking white sugar for arsenic is a failure of means, and it is factors other than will that lead to the failure of subjective results. Can only be characterized as attempted crime, not as a crime.