Are the two statements "Chinese Pinyin does not conform to the principle of one sound, one symbol and one sound" and "English 48 phonetic symbols only represent 48 phonemes" correct?

I think both of these statements are correct.

But I looked up the information about the latter statement: "Traditional phonetics thinks that English has 48 phonemes. A phoneme corresponds to a phonetic symbol, so * * * has 48 international phonetic symbols. Modern phonetics holds that English has 44 phonemes. Because modern phonetics thinks /tr/, /dr/, /ts/, /dz/ and so on. Not an independent phoneme, but a consonant. " There is a difference between tradition and modernity now.

Judging from the usual judgment, I think it should be right. I remember when I was studying, it seemed like this.

The information is as follows:

1, the international phonetic symbol is a sound, a symbol and a sound. That is, a phoneme is only represented by a symbol, and a symbol can only represent a fixed phoneme. For example, "pa, zhang, ai, ian" in Chinese Pinyin, in which four A's are actually four different phonemes, but they are all represented by one letter A, while the International Phonetic Alphabet uses (or) four different letters to represent these different phonemes, and only uses A to represent the phonemes composed of these phonemes.

2. Phoneme is the smallest phonetic unit. English * * * has 48 phonemes. The symbols that record phonemes are called phonetic symbols. Each phonetic symbol represents a phoneme.